Every "thing" God Ever "borrowed" Was Paid Back with Interest. Would It Not Be Inconsistent of God's Character to Borrow Mary's Womb and Not Repay?
1) Direct Answer
No inconsistency at all. God did not “borrow” Mary’s womb; God created a body by His Word and overshadowed a virgin. Then He honored the marriage He had joined, and Mary had children after Jesus. If you want to call that “interest,” the Scripture shows it plainly—Mary’s own children followed the virgin birth.
2) Scriptural Explanation
- Luke 1:35 says, “The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee.” That was God creating the body of His Son in a virgin. God was manifested in flesh.
- Matthew 1:25: “And [Joseph] knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son.” “Till” shows that normal marital union followed the birth, and “firstborn” points to others after.
- Psalm 69:8 (applied to Jesus in John 2:17; Romans 15:3): “I am become a stranger unto my brethren, and an alien unto my mother’s children.” It says “my mother’s children.”
- Matthew 13:55-56 names Jesus’ brothers—James, Joses, Simon, Judas—and mentions His sisters. That is Mary’s household.
- Psalm 127:3 says children are “an heritage of the LORD.” God blesses the marriage bed with fruitfulness.
- And remember, Romans 11:35: God is debtor to no man. He doesn’t owe “interest,” yet He keeps His order and His Word perfectly.
3) Simple Clarifying Logic
- God owed Mary nothing; yet He honored her. He guarded her virginity for the sign of Isaiah 7:14, then released her to normal married life. The result: her own children.
- If those children were “inherited” from Joseph’s supposed prior marriage, Psalm 69 would read like “my father’s children.” But it says “my mother’s children.”
- So the very text that identifies Jesus as the Messiah also identifies Mary as the mother of the siblings named in the Gospels.
4) Reinforcing Statement
You see, God’s character and God’s order stand together. The virgin birth was the miracle; afterward, Mary and Joseph’s marriage was fruitful. The Bible says it; that settles it.
Existing Follow-Up Answers
- Couldn't Psalm 69:8 Be Symbolically Referring to the Whole Nation of Israel as Opposed to the Narrow Interpretation of Mary and the Lord's Brethren?
1) Direct Answer No. Psalm 69 is spoken in the singular of the Messiah, and the New Testament applies it directly to Jesus. "My mother's children
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Ranked passages from the local William Branham sermon and Church Age Book database. Relevance is relative, not a statement of doctrinal certainty.
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